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Do Draytek modems apply interleaving at the user end?
- alucidnation
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06 Feb 2019 15:56 #93947
by alucidnation
Do Draytek modems apply interleaving at the user end? was created by alucidnation
Hi guys,
Trying to sort out ongoing issues with my ISP.
After they showed me DSL stats their end, it shows interleaving has been applied, and yet when i look at the stats on my 2862 it shows as being on Fast Path with interleaving at 1?
I have rebooted the modem to see if it updates to show interleaving but nothing comes up.
Thanks.
Trying to sort out ongoing issues with my ISP.
After they showed me DSL stats their end, it shows interleaving has been applied, and yet when i look at the stats on my 2862 it shows as being on Fast Path with interleaving at 1?
I have rebooted the modem to see if it updates to show interleaving but nothing comes up.
Thanks.
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- adrianh54
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06 Feb 2019 19:26 #93952
by adrianh54
Replied by adrianh54 on topic Re: Do Draytek modems apply interleaving at the user end?
Your modem doesn't apply anything , the DSLAM is in control.
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- alucidnation
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26 Feb 2019 07:18 #94070
by alucidnation
Replied by alucidnation on topic Re: Do Draytek modems apply interleaving at the user end?
Hi thanks.
Strangely, for some reason the router is now showing interleaving, and yet my ISP is stating that my line isn't interleaved.
All seems a bit odd to me.
Strangely, for some reason the router is now showing interleaving, and yet my ISP is stating that my line isn't interleaved.
All seems a bit odd to me.
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- x64
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26 Feb 2019 07:54 #94071
by x64
Interleaving of "1" is showing that the line is effectively NOT interleaved. It would show a larger number (which would be a factor of 2) if the line interleaved.
And yes, the DSLAM calls the shots as to the settings applied to tune your line (based on its observations, and those reported by your modem).
Replied by x64 on topic Re: Do Draytek modems apply interleaving at the user end?
Hi guys,Alucidnation wrote:
.... with interleaving at 1....
Interleaving of "1" is showing that the line is effectively NOT interleaved. It would show a larger number (which would be a factor of 2) if the line interleaved.
And yes, the DSLAM calls the shots as to the settings applied to tune your line (based on its observations, and those reported by your modem).
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- alucidnation
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26 Feb 2019 08:16 #94072
by alucidnation
Replied by alucidnation on topic Re: Do Draytek modems apply interleaving at the user end?
Ah ok, I thought the modem must have had some sort of input but it's just odd the differences on what the ISP sees and what i see.
Thanks/
Thanks/
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- x64
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26 Feb 2019 13:11 #94074
by x64
I don't think that the ISP is seeing anything different than you are seeing. An interleave of 1 is effectively* no interleaving. And the fact that your modem is reporting "Fast path" probably means that what is in the Interleave depth field would not be taken into account anyhow.
(* I said 'effectively' as Interleave with a depth of 1 is the equivalent of Fast path. - You could think of it as the difference between the following two equations
"a=b" and "a=b x 1" - they compute to the same thing. Whilst a and b in the equations do not refer any DSL parameter in particular, you could think of the first equation being "Fast path active", and the second "Fast path inactive with an interleave of 1")
Interleave is the process of spreading a unit of information over a wider time period minimising the risk of interference on the circuit erroring over enough of that unit to prevent it being reconstructed by error recovery mechanisms. An interleave of 1 means that the information is all being transmitted in its normal time slot - hence no interleave. I suppose that even if Fast path is active - the interleave vale needs to say something '1' would be a sensible value there as it means the same.
And on the other point - I suppose the modem does have a say, but it's the DSLAM that makes the decisions. The modem has a say by reporting its capabilities and the stats that it detects. If it's reporting those truthfully/accurately, then it's all down to the line conditions and the DSLAM's assessment of the information available to it..
Replied by x64 on topic Re: Do Draytek modems apply interleaving at the user end?
Ah ok, I thought the modem must have had some sort of input but it's just odd the differences on what the ISP sees and what i see.Alucidnation wrote:
Thanks/
I don't think that the ISP is seeing anything different than you are seeing. An interleave of 1 is effectively* no interleaving. And the fact that your modem is reporting "Fast path" probably means that what is in the Interleave depth field would not be taken into account anyhow.
(* I said 'effectively' as Interleave with a depth of 1 is the equivalent of Fast path. - You could think of it as the difference between the following two equations
"a=b" and "a=b x 1" - they compute to the same thing. Whilst a and b in the equations do not refer any DSL parameter in particular, you could think of the first equation being "Fast path active", and the second "Fast path inactive with an interleave of 1")
Interleave is the process of spreading a unit of information over a wider time period minimising the risk of interference on the circuit erroring over enough of that unit to prevent it being reconstructed by error recovery mechanisms. An interleave of 1 means that the information is all being transmitted in its normal time slot - hence no interleave. I suppose that even if Fast path is active - the interleave vale needs to say something '1' would be a sensible value there as it means the same.
And on the other point - I suppose the modem does have a say, but it's the DSLAM that makes the decisions. The modem has a say by reporting its capabilities and the stats that it detects. If it's reporting those truthfully/accurately, then it's all down to the line conditions and the DSLAM's assessment of the information available to it..
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